GRE Verbal Quiz-05
GRE Verbal Quiz-05
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Question 1 |
More and more computer programs that provide solutions to mathematical problems in engineering are being produced, and it is thus increasingly unnecessary for practicing engineers to have a thorough understanding of fundamental mathematical principles. Consequently, in training engineers who will work in industry, less emphasis should be placed on mathematical principles so that space in the engineering curriculum will be available for other important subjects.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument given for the recommendation above?
A | The effective use of computer programs that provide solutions to mathematical problems in engineering requires an understanding of fundamental mathematical principles. |
B | Many of the computer programs that provide solutions to mathematical problems in engineering are already in routine use. |
C | Development of composites and other such new materials has meant that the curriculum for engineers who will work in industry must allow time for teaching the properties of these materials. |
D | Most of the computer programs that provide solutions to mathematical problems in engineering can be run on the types of computers available to most engineering firms. |
E | The engineering curriculum already requires that engineering students be familiar with and able to use a variety of computer programs. |
Question 2 |
The administrative budget in the Central Valley school district is proportional to the value of the valley’s property tax base, the chief source of funding for the school district. As revenue from property taxes increases, each budget segment of the school district is increased proportionately.
Which of the following statements, if true, is the best basis for a criticism of the Central Valley’s budgeting policy as an economically sound budgeting method for school districts?
A | The school district might continue to pay for past inefficient allocation of funds. |
B | The revenue from property taxes has remained relatively unchanged for the last decade. |
C | Student performance is affected by fluctuations in the overall school district budget. |
D | Many Central Valley taxpayers have complained about the high property tax rates in the area. |
E | The current budgeting system has little impact on whether parents decide to take their children to non-district funded classes. |
Question 3 |
Maas is, at best, able to write magazine articles of average quality. The most compelling pieces of evidence for this are those few of the numerous articles submitted by Maas that are superior, since Maas, who is incapable of writing an article that is better than average, obviously must have plagiarized the superior ones.
The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which of the following grounds?
A | It simply ignores the existence of potential counter-evidence. |
B | It generalizes from atypical occurrences. |
C | It presupposes what it seeks to establish. |
D | It relies on the judgment of experts in a matter where their expertise is irrelevant. |
E | It infers limits on ability from a few isolated lapses in performance. |
Question 4 |
Most pain relievers come with warnings against continuous use longer than 7 consecutive days. While some people might be able to safely use a particular pain reliever for a longer period of time, many people will begin to experience side effects if the warnings are ignored.
The information above most strongly supports which of the following?
A | A physician should not advise any patient to take any pain reliever for a period of longer than 7 consecutive days. |
B | People who are sensitive to one type of pain reliever should not attempt to use a different pain reliever. |
C | At least some people who take pain relievers for longer than 7 days will experience side effects. |
D | Any side effects experienced by a patient who has taken a pain reliever for fewer than 7 consecutive days cannot be the result of the pain reliever. |
E | Anyone who wants to maximize their natural health and well-being should avoid pain relievers entirely. |
Question 5 |
From 1994 to 2001, violent crime in New York City steadily decreased by over 50%, from a rate of 1,861 violent crimes per 100,000 people in 1994 down to 851 violent crimes per 100,000 people in 2001. Criminologists have partially attributed this drop to proactive policing tactics such as “broken window policing,” wherein city officials immediately fixed small acts of vandalism and, as a result, lowered other types of criminal behavior. During this same period, the rate of violent crime in the United States steadily decreased by 28% (down to 500 violent crimes per 100,000 people).
Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the information above?
A | The decrease in the total crime rate in the United States caused the decrease in New York City’s crime rate. |
B | New York City spends more per capita on law enforcement than does the rest of the United States. |
C | If the rest of the United States were to adopt law enforcement tactics similar to those of New York City, national violent crime rates would continue to fall. |
D | Between 1994 and 2001, the violent crime rate in New York City was consistently higher than the national average. |
E | The violent crime rate in New York City will soon be below the national average. |
Question 6 |
Heavy consumption of alcohol causes impaired judgment, a loss of fine motor skills, slower reaction times, a decrease in visual acuity, and other short-term symptoms. Since alcohol can be metabolized in the average person’s body at a rate of 0.015 BAC (or “blood alcohol content”) per hour, a severely intoxicated individual with a BAC of 0.15 should be symptom-free after 10 hours. After this time, if the individual exhibits similar symptoms, such symptoms cannot be caused by alcohol.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion above?
A | Some symptoms normally associated with alcohol consumption may resemble symptoms caused by prescription drugs or even drowsiness. |
B | Increases in BAC are based on the amount of alcohol consumed rather than the number of drinks (some drinks contain more alcohol than others). |
C | Heavy alcohol consumption has numerous long term effects such as cirrhosis of the liver, stomach ulcers, and birth defects. |
D | The metabolic rate of alcohol varies according to a person’s health, weight, diet, and genetic predispositions. |
E | Some people, due to an acute sensitivity to alcohol, cannot even reach a BAC of 0.15 before becoming violently ill. |
Question 7 |
When Germany was asked to pay 132 billion gold marks in war reparations following World War I, the German government had to print money to pay its bills, drastically devaluing the currency. In response to this anticipated devaluation, Germans began spending their money while it still had purchasing power, almost completely depleting the monetary stores of domestic banks.
Which of the following, if true and taken together with the information above, best supports the conclusion that the devaluation of the German mark was likely to continue?
A | The recipient governments of the war reparations began to demand that the reparations be paid in goods and commodities, such as coal. |
B | The amount of 132 billion gold marks was the largest war reparations amount ever levied to that point. |
C | In the post-World War I period, the German government had only two options for preventing complete economic collapse: print money or take out loans from domestic banks. |
D | Printing currency causes inflation when the money is not based on hard assets such as gold or land. |
E | The more consumers make purchases, the more money is returned into a country’s economy. |
Question 8 |
In an attempt to protect the environment and stop oil companies from sinking a decommissioned North Sea oil platform to the bottom of the ocean, environmental groups ringed the platform with protest boats and demanded that it be towed to land, where it could be dismantled above water. Environmentalists argued that sinking the oil platform would cause irreparable damage to the deep sea ecosystem and release into the ocean over 53 tons of oil residue and heavy metals.
Which of the following, if true, indicates the plan to tow the oil platform to land is ill-suited to the environmentalist group’s goals?
A | The National Environmental Research Council approved the sinking of the oil platform, calling it the “best practicable environmental option.” |
B | Dismantling the oil platform on land would cost over 70 million dollars, compared to the $7.5 million needed to secure and sink it in a deep ocean location. |
C | The release of 53 tons of toxic material into the ocean is very little compared to the volume of very highly toxic materials released by deep sea volcanoes. |
D | Towing the oil platform into shallow waters poses a massive risk that it may break up on its way to land, releasing the contained pollutants into fragile coastal waters. |
E | The sinking of the platform is fully in line with internationally approved guidelines for the disposal of off shore installations at sea. |
Question 9 |
Sylvia: Some psychologists attribute complex reasoning ability to reptiles, claiming that simple stimulus-response explanations of some reptiles’ behaviors, such as food gathering, cannot account for the complexity of such behavior. But since experiments show that reptiles are incapable of making major alterations in their behavior, for example, when faced with significant changes in their environment, these animals must be incapable of complex reasoning.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by Sylvia’s argument?
A | Animals could make major changes in their behavior only if they were capable of complex reasoning. |
B | Simple stimulus-response explanations can in principle account for all reptile behaviors. |
C | Reptile behavior appears more complex in the field than laboratory experiments reveal it to be. |
D | If reptiles were capable of complex reasoning, they would sometimes be able to make major changes in their behavior. |
E | Complex reasoning and responses to stimuli cannot both contribute to the same behavior. |
Question 10 |
The search for NEOs (or ”Near Earth Objects”) has intensified greatly within the last few years with the emergence of a virtual army of amateur astronomers. By combing their observations into a single database at the Smithsonian Astrophysical Observatory, “backyard scientists” are capable of accurately determining the orbits and motions of asteroids that could hit the Earth. Indeed, in recent years much of the burden for accurately evaluating the risks posed by NEOs has been shouldered by amateur astronomers. Therefore, we should reserve larger, professional telescopes for uses other than finding NEOs.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?
A | Because of their numbers, amateur astronomers as a group are much more efficient than are individual professional telescopes at accurately determining NEO orbits. |
B | Because large telescopes are often controlled by governments or institutions, professional scientists do not always have full discretion to use these telescopes any way they would like. |
C | Most amateur astronomers do not have any professional training in astronomy. |
D | NASA has set a goal of finding at least 90% of the estimated 1000 NEOs larger than 1 kilometer in diameter. |
E | Amateur astronomers primarily provide follow-up observations after NEO discoveries have been made by the use of larger, computerized telescopes. |
Question 11 |
After Company K released its low-fat butter substitute into European markets for the first time, it found that it was unable to achieve any appreciable market share. To combat this problem, Company K re-released the product under a new name with great fanfare and a substantial marketing budget, calling it the “new low-fat alternative to butter.”
Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the effectiveness of the solution proposed above?
A | In many European countries, satisfactory taste and low-fat content are believed to be entirely contradictory. |
B | The market for yellow fats such as margarine and butter has been slowly shrinking in many European countries due to the emergence of specialized cheese spreads. |
C | Company K could only feasibly maintain such a marketing budget for 10 to 12 months before scaling down the campaign. |
D | After Company K attempted a similar marketing strategy in South America, sales of the new product greatly increased. |
E | In Denmark, the new low-fat butter substitute achieved a market share of 15% within the first year – without any massive marketing campaign. |
Question 12 |
Pharmaceutical manufacturers have long claimed that one of the main reasons they give doctors free drug samples is so that doctors can pass the medicine along to poor patients. However, a new study shows that high-income, wellinsured individuals receive considerably more prescription drug samples than do low-income, poorly insured individuals. This is because doctors favor affluent people with health insurance.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously jeopardizes the validity of the explanation for why high-income individuals receive more free prescription drug samples than low-income individuals do?
A | Independent medical clinics not affiliated with large hospitals receive only a small percentage of the free drug samples distributed by pharmaceutical manufacturers. |
B | Because of the associated costs, low-income people see doctors less often, if at all. |
C | Some medical offices refuse to treat individuals for conditions that are not critical or life-threatening if the individual does not have the means to pay for the treatment. |
D | Once the free drug sample supply in a doctor’s office is gone, the patients are forced to pay for their prescriptions. |
E | Though they claim to give doctors free drug samples in order to help poor patients, the real reasons pharmaceutical companies do it are to increase brand awareness and to influence the doctor to prescribe these drugs more often. |
Question 13 |
Members of the staff at the local daycare suggest that parents would have more incentive to pick up their children on time if the parents were assessed a fine after arriving more than 10 minutes late to pick up their children.
Which of the following, assuming that it is a realistic possibility, argues the most strongly against the effectiveness of the suggestion above?
A | By replacing social norms with market norms, fines might induce parents to weigh the “costs” of picking their children up late and, as a result, to frequently choose to be late. |
B | There might be irreconcilable disagreements among the daycare staff about whether the late fines should be imposed. |
C | Late fines might cause some parents to enroll their children in other daycares. |
D | Removing the late fine policy might actually increase the number of tardy pick-ups. |
E | Some parents might pick up their children late no matter what level of fine is imposed against them. |
Question 14 |
Although many seventeenth-century broadsides, popular ballads printed on a single sheet of paper and widely sold by street peddlers, were moralizing in nature, this is not evidence that most seventeenth-century people were serious about moral values. While over half of surviving broadsides contain moralizing statements, and it is known that many people purchased such compositions, it is not known why they did so, nor is it known how their own beliefs related to what they read.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?
A | Like other forms of cheap seventeenth-century popular literature, surviving broadsides seem mostly to have been of rather low literary quality and to have been written by hack writers. |
B | In many moralizing ballads, the moral content was confined to a single stanza expressing a pious sentiment tacked onto a sensationalized account of the crime and adultery. |
C | Some seventeenth-century ballad sellers also sold some sermons printed in pamphlet form. |
D | The clergy occasionally stuck broadsides warning about the danger of strong drink on the doors of seventeenth-century alehouses. |
E | Well-educated people of the seventeenth-century held broadsides in contempt and considered broadside peddlers to be disreputable vagrants. |
Question 15 |
People who have political power tend to see new technologies as a means of extending or protecting their power, whereas they generally see new ethical arguments and ideas as a threat to it. Therefore, technical ingenuity usually brings benefits to those who have this ingenuity, whereas ethical inventiveness brings only pain to those who have this inventiveness.
Which one of the following statements, if true, most strengthens the argument?
A | Those who offer new ways of justifying current political power often reap the benefits of their own inventions. |
B | Politically powerful people tend to reward those whom they believe are useful to them and to punish those whom they believe are threats. |
C | Ethical inventiveness and technical ingenuity are never possessed by the same individuals. |
D | New technologies are often used by people who strive to defeat those who currently have political power. |
E | Many people who possess ethical inventiveness conceal their novel ethical arguments for fear of retribution by the politically powerful. |
Question 16 |
Birds need so much food energy to maintain their body temperatures that some of them spend most of their time eating. But a comparison of Mifune, a bird of a seed-eating species, to Rossi, a bird of a nectar-eating species that has the same overall energy requirement, would surely show that Mifune spends more time eating than does Rossi, since a given amount of nectar provides more energy than does the same amount of seeds.
The argument relies on which one of the following questionable assumptions?
A | Birds of different species generally do not have the same overall energy requirements as each other. |
B | The nectar-eating bird does not sometimes also eat seeds. |
C | The time it takes for the nectar-eating bird to eat a given amount of nectar is not longer than the time it takes the seed-eating bird to eat the same amount of seeds. |
D | The seed-eating bird does not have a lower body temperature than does the nectar-eating bird. |
E | The overall energy requirements of a given bird do not depend on factors such as the size of the bird, its nest-building habits, and the climate of the region in which it lives. |
Question 17 |
Automobile manufacturers who began two decades ago to design passenger vehicles that were more fuel-efficient faced a dilemma because the lighter, more efficient vehicles were less safe on high-speed highways. However, the manufacturers avoided this dilemma by producing two types of passenger vehicles: a lighter vehicle for medium-speed, local transportation, and a heavier, safer vehicle for long-distance travel. Since at the time most automobile traffic was local, a net savings in fuel use was achieved with no loss in safety.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?
A | Most households whose members do any long-distance driving own at least two passenger vehicles. |
B | There are more cars using high-speed highways today than there were two decades ago. |
C | Even large automobiles are, on average, lighter today than similar sized vehicles were two decades ago. |
D | Most high-speed highways are used by both commercial vehicles and passenger vehicles. |
E | Some automobile manufacturers designed prototypes for fuel-efficient passenger vehicles more than two decades ago. |
Question 18 |
When a group of people starts a company, the founders usually serve as sources both of funding and of skills in marketing, management, and technical matters. It is unlikely that a single individual can both provide adequate funding and be skilled in marketing, management, and technical matters. Therefore, companies founded by groups are more likely to succeed than companies founded by individuals.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?
A | A new company is more likely to succeed if every founding member contributes equally to the company’s initial funding than if some members contribute more funds than others. |
B | Some founding members of successful companies can provide both funding and skills in marketing, management, or technical matters. |
C | New companies are more likely to succeed when their founders can provide adequate funding and skills in marketing, management, and technical abilities than when they must secure funding or skills from nonfounders. |
D | Founders of a new company can more easily acquire marketing and management abilities than technical abilities. |
E | A new company is more likely to succeed if its technical experts are also skilled in management and marketing than if they lack management or marketing skills. |
Question 19 |
During the recent economic downturn, banks contributed to the decline by loaning less money. Prior to the downturn, regulatory standards for making bank loans were tightened. Clearly, therefore, banks will lend more money if those standards are relaxed.
The argument above is based on which of the following assumption?
A | The downturn did not cause a significant decrease in the total amount of money on deposit with banks, which is the source of funds for banks to lend. |
B | The imposition of tighter regulatory standards was not a cause of the economic downturn. |
C | The reason for tightening the regulatory standards was not arbitrary. |
D | No economic downturn is accompanied by a significant decrease in the amount of money loaned out by banks to individual borrowers and businesses. |
E | No relaxation of standards for bank loans would compensate for the effects of the downturn. |
Question 20 |
In casual conversation, people experience little psychological discomfort in admitting that they have some particular character flaw if and only if they consider trivial the flaw to which they admit. Therefore, if in casual conversation an individual readily admits that he or she has some particular character flaw, the individual must not consider that flaw to be serious.
Which one of the following is an assumption necessary to the argument?
A | Most character flaws are considered trivial by those who have them. |
B | People admit to having only those character flaws that most other people consider trivial. |
C | In casual conversation, people admit to having character flaws only when they must. |
D | In casual conversation, people most readily admit to having a character flaw only when that admission causes them little psychological discomfort. |
E | In casual conversation, people do not speak of things that would give others an unfavorable impression of their character. |
Question 21 |
Environmentalist: It takes less energy to make molten glass from recycled glass than from raw materials. Once the recycled glass or raw materials have been turned into molten glass, making bottles from recycled glass follows the same process as making bottles from raw materials. Obviously, soft drink bottlers who make a large percentage of their bottles from recycled glass have significant energy savings. Therefore, by using recycled glass instead of glass made from raw materials, bottlers can lower their costs and benefit the environment at the same time.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies?
A | The process of making bottles from plastic that has been recycled is not significantly more energy efficient than is the process of making bottles from glass that has been recycled. |
B | The amount of glass that is currently recycled each year is enough to supply the major soft drink bottlers with materials for a large percentage of the glass bottles they make that year. |
C | Most consumers are not able to distinguish bottles made from recycled glass from glass bottles made from raw materials. |
D | Purchasing and transport costs are not so much greater for recycled glass than for raw materials that they outweigh the savings in energy costs resulting from the use of recycled glass. |
E | The process of making molten glass from recycled glass requires fewer steps than does the process of making molten glass from raw materials. |
Question 22 |
According to recent study data, greenhouse gas emissions from fossil fuel-based vehicles are a major contributor to global climate instability. One plan to reduce greenhouse gases within the United States is to encourage the production of corn-based ethanol fuels. Such “biofuels” burn cleaner and therefore emit fewer harmful chemicals into the atmosphere. To encourage production, financial incentives could be given to companies to make the switch to biofuel technology.
Which of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the effectiveness of the plan to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by encouraging the production of corn-based fuels?
A | Before any law is enacted to provide financial incentives to biofuel companies, it must pass with a majority vote in both houses of Congress. |
B | While ethanol currently makes up less than 4 percent of the motor fuel used nationally, the corn used in ethanol production constitutes 14 percent of the domestic crop. |
C | Corn-based ethanol production increases food prices and consumes large amounts of water. |
D | The fertilizer used in the cultivation of biofuel crops releases nitrous oxide, a potent, long-lived greenhouse gas into the atmosphere. |
E | The scientific study of greenhouse gas emissions was conducted by a university that received funding from prominent agricultural lobby groups who would benefit greatly from new legislation. |
Question 23 |
The retail price of decaffeinated coffee is considerably higher than that of regular coffee. However, the process by which coffee beans are decaffeinated is fairly simple and not very costly. Therefore, the price difference cannot be accounted for by the greater cost of providing decaffeinated coffee to the consumer.
The argument relies on assuming which one of the following?
A | Processing regular coffee costs more than does processing decaffeinated coffee. |
B | Price differences between products can generally be accounted for by such factors as supply and demand, not by differences in production costs. |
C | There is little competition among companies that process decaffeinated coffee. |
D | Retail coffee-sellers do not believe that consumers are content to pay more for decaffeinated coffee than for regular coffee. |
E | The beans used for producing decaffeinated coffee do not cost much more before processing than the beans used for producing regular coffee. |
Question 24 |
Researchers have recently discovered that approximately 70% of restaurant lemon wedges they studied were contaminated with harmful microorganisms such as bacteria and fungal pathogens. The researchers looked at numerous different restaurants in different regions of the country. Most of the organisms had the potential to cause infectious disease. For that reason, people should not order lemon wedges with their drinks.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion above?
A | The researchers could not determine why or how the microbial contamination occurred on the lemon wedges. |
B | The researchers failed to investigate contamination of restaurant lime wedges by harmful microorganisms. |
C | The researchers found that people who ordered lemon wedges at restaurants were equally likely to contract the diseases caused by the discovered bacteria as were people who did not order lemon wedges. |
D | Health laws require lemons to be handled with gloves or tongs, but the common practice is for waiters and waitresses to handle them with their bare hands. |
E | Many factors that have nothing to do with lemons affect the chance of an individual contracting a disease by coming into contact with bacteria. These factors include such things as the health and age of the individual as well as the status of his or her immune system. |
Question 25 |
Before 1986 physicists believed they could describe the universe in terms of four universal forces. Experiments then suggested, however, a fifth universal force of mutual repulsion between particles of matter. This fifth force would explain the occurrence in the experiments of a smaller measurement of the gravitational attraction between bodies than the established theory predicted.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument that there is a fifth universal force?
A | The extremely sophisticated equipment used for the experiments was not available to physicists before the 1970’s. |
B | No previously established scientific results are incompatible with the notion of a fifth universal force. |
C | Some scientists have suggested that the alleged fifth universal force is an aspect of gravity rather than being fundamental in itself. |
D | The experiments were conducted by physicists in remote geological settings in which factors affecting the force of gravity could not be measured with any degree of precision. |
E | The fifth universal force was postulated at a time during which many other exciting and productive ideas in theoretical physics were developed. |
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